Allow me to present my concerns regarding your line of reasoning. You posit that human volition possesses the ability to alter divine volition. If we accept the premise that humans are inherently flawed, then the occurrence of sinful actions would have taken God by surprise. Moreover, if God lacked prior knowledge of sin before its commission, it would imply that He is obligated to redeem humanity due to His subjugation to the free will of mankind to choose sin. Essentially, this implies that God had no foreknowledge of the impending downfall of humanity.

By making God a subject of His own creation, we are suggesting that God is influenced by the choice of sin. If God is influenced by man, then His unchanging character is subject to change based on man's sin. If God is influenced by man's choice to sin, then He did not have prior knowledge of man's sin. Without knowledge of future events, God cannot be considered all-knowing. If God's will is subject to man's free choice, then He lacks the power to exercise His providence to remedy man's sin, as man's purpose in sinning would be more powerful than God's purpose to save. How can we trust a God whose purpose for man only began after man sinned? If man can choose to sin without God decreeing it, then God's purpose can be changed by man at any time. This would make God untrustworthy. Since salvation was part of God's plan from eternity, His purpose in saving man included the fall of man. Otherwise, God would not be truly God.